Study-card deck

Cards are original learning prompts mapped to FAA-S-ACS-10B. Expand the answer only after attempting it. Critical marks a rule or decision whose omission could make an operation illegal or unsafe.

I. Regulations

REG-01 · UA.I.A.K1 · Critical

Q: What aircraft weight falls within the Part 107 small-UAS rule?

A: Less than 55 pounds at takeoff, including everything onboard or attached. An aircraft at exactly 55 pounds is not “less than 55.” Other applicability conditions still must be checked.

REG-02 · UA.I.A.K2

Q: What is the difference between the unmanned aircraft and the sUAS?

A: The unmanned aircraft is the flying device; the system includes the aircraft and associated elements needed for safe and efficient operation, such as the control station and command link.

REG-03 · UA.I.A.K4 · Critical

Q: When and where is a qualifying Part 107 accident reported?

A: Report to the FAA within 10 calendar days when the operation causes serious injury, loss of consciousness, or at least $500 damage to property other than the sUAS. Use the FAA's current reporting channel and preserve the facts.

REG-04 · UA.I.A.K5

Q: What must a remote PIC provide to the FAA on request?

A: Required records/documents and the small UAS for inspection or testing; the pilot may also have to demonstrate regulatory compliance.

REG-05 · UA.I.B.K1 · Critical

Q: Does a 0.50-pound aircraft used under Part 107 require registration?

A: Yes. Each aircraft operated under Part 107 is individually registered. The at-or-below-0.55-pound exception is limited to qualifying recreational use.

REG-06 · UA.I.B.K2 · Critical

Q: Who decides whether the complete sUAS is in safe condition before flight?

A: The remote PIC. Manufacturer guidance and crew inspections inform the decision but do not transfer responsibility.

REG-07 · UA.I.B.K4 · Critical

Q: May a non-certificated person manipulate the controls?

A: Yes, only under the direct supervision of a certificated remote PIC who can immediately take direct control. The remote PIC retains authority and responsibility.

REG-08 · UA.I.B.K5

Q: May the remote PIC deviate from Part 107 during an emergency?

A: To the extent necessary to respond to an in-flight emergency. The FAA may request a written report of the deviation; the emergency is not blanket relief.

REG-09 · UA.I.B.K6 · Critical

Q: When may an object be dropped from an sUAS?

A: Only when doing so does not create an undue hazard to people or property. Other payload, hazardous-material, and carriage rules still apply.

REG-10 · UA.I.B.K7

Q: What is the moving-vehicle rule most applicants should remember?

A: Never operate from a moving aircraft. Operation from a moving land/water vehicle is allowed only over a sparsely populated area and not when transporting another person's property for compensation or hire, unless authorized otherwise.

REG-11 · UA.I.B.K8 · Critical

Q: State the three core alcohol restrictions.

A: No operation within 8 hours after drinking, with blood alcohol at or above 0.04%, or while under the influence/effects that impair safety. Drug/medication impairment is also prohibited.

REG-12 · UA.I.B.K9 · Critical

Q: What is required for routine Part 107 night flight?

A: Updated initial/recurrent night knowledge and anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statute miles with a flash rate sufficient to avoid a collision. All airspace and other rules remain applicable.

REG-13 · UA.I.B.K10 · Critical

Q: What must VLOS allow the crew to determine?

A: The aircraft's location, attitude, altitude, direction of flight, and whether it endangers life or property, with unaided vision except corrective lenses.

REG-14 · UA.I.B.K11

Q: What makes a visual observer arrangement valid?

A: Effective communication with the remote PIC/person manipulating controls and coordinated awareness sufficient to maintain required VLOS and hazard avoidance.

REG-15 · UA.I.B.K12

Q: May one person be remote PIC or visual observer for two simultaneous flights?

A: No. A person may not act as remote PIC or VO for more than one operation at once.

REG-16 · UA.I.B.K14 · Critical

Q: Who has right-of-way: the sUAS or any manned aircraft?

A: The manned aircraft. The sUAS must yield and remain well clear; never pass over, under, or ahead unless well clear.

REG-17 · UA.I.B.K16 · Critical

Q: Which airspace generally requires prior ATC authorization under §107.41?

A: Class B, C, D, and the lateral boundaries of surface-area Class E designated for an airport.

REG-18 · UA.I.B.K20

Q: What does the preflight assessment cover beyond inspecting the aircraft?

A: Local weather, airspace/restrictions, people/property, surface hazards, flight/landing areas, and other risks; brief operating and emergency procedures.

REG-19 · UA.I.B.K21 · Critical

Q: State the baseline speed, altitude, visibility, and cloud-clearance limits.

A: 87 knots/100 mph groundspeed; normally 400 ft AGL; 3 statute miles flight visibility; 500 ft below and 2,000 ft horizontally from clouds.

REG-20 · UA.I.B.K21b

Q: What is the structure exception to 400 ft AGL?

A: The aircraft may fly higher when within 400 ft of a structure, but no more than 400 ft above the structure's immediate uppermost limit. Airspace authorization and all other restrictions still apply.

REG-21 · UA.I.B.K26

Q: Name core conditions for carrying property for compensation or hire.

A: Total takeoff weight remains under 55 lb, VLOS and other Part 107 rules are met, the operation occurs within a state (with specified DC/Hawaii treatment), and the flight is not conducted from a moving vehicle/aircraft under the prohibited condition.

REG-22 · UA.I.C.K3

Q: What are the Remote Pilot Certificate eligibility requirements?

A: At least 16, English capable, physically/mentally safe, and either pass UAG or qualify through the Part 61/current-flight-review training path, plus TSA vetting.

REG-23 · UA.I.C.K4

Q: How often must aeronautical knowledge recency be renewed?

A: Complete qualifying recurrent training within the preceding 24 calendar months to exercise Part 107 privileges.

REG-24 · UA.I.D.K1

Q: How does a waiver differ from an airspace authorization?

A: A waiver grants relief from a specified waivable operating rule after an equivalent-safety showing. An authorization permits specified controlled-airspace access. One does not automatically provide the other.

REG-25 · UA.I.E.K3 · Critical

Q: What makes an aircraft eligible for Category 1 operations over people?

A: It weighs 0.55 lb or less throughout the operation, including attachments, and has no exposed rotating parts capable of causing lacerations. Sustained flight over open-air assemblies additionally requires Remote ID compliance.

REG-26 · UA.I.E.K3

Q: What distinguishes Category 2 and Category 3 aircraft eligibility?

A: Both use FAA-accepted performance-based means/declarations of compliance, labeling, and injury/rotating-part requirements. Category 3 permits a higher injury threshold but imposes stricter operating limits and no open-air assemblies.

REG-27 · UA.I.E.K3

Q: What defines Category 4 eligibility?

A: An eligible aircraft with a Part 21 airworthiness certificate, operated and maintained within its approved flight manual/FAA limitations.

REG-28 · UA.I.E.K1 · Critical

Q: Does a brief direct crossing above a person's arm count as “over” a person?

A: Yes. “Over” includes flight directly above any part of a person regardless of duration. “Sustained flight” is a separate concept for assemblies/vehicles.

REG-29 · UA.I.F.K1

Q: What does Standard Remote ID broadcast that a module does not?

A: Standard RID includes the moving control-station location/elevation and emergency status; a module reports takeoff location/elevation instead.

REG-30 · UA.I.F.K2 · Critical

Q: What additional operational limit applies to a Remote ID broadcast module?

A: The pilot must maintain VLOS. The module serial must be correctly associated with the Part 107 aircraft's registration record.

REG-31 · UA.I.F.K3

Q: When can a non-Remote-ID aircraft operate in a FRIA?

A: Only within the FRIA's geographic boundaries and VLOS, while satisfying all other applicable rules. A FRIA is not general permission for Part 107 activity.

II. Airspace

AIR-01 · UA.II.A.K1

Q: On a sectional, what commonly depicts Class B, C, D, and surface Class E?

A: Class B solid blue, Class C solid magenta, Class D dashed blue, and airport surface Class E dashed magenta. Always confirm with the current legend.

AIR-02 · UA.II.A.K1

Q: A Class C shelf is labeled 40/SFC. What does it mean?

A: The segment extends from the surface to 4,000 ft MSL; sectional figures drop the final two zeros. Determine the actual segment and terrain before converting.

AIR-03 · UA.II.A.K1

Q: Why is confusing MSL and AGL dangerous?

A: Airspace/chart elevations often use MSL while Part 107 height limits use AGL. Failing to add terrain elevation can enter controlled airspace or misjudge clearance.

AIR-04 · UA.II.A.K2

Q: Contrast prohibited and restricted areas.

A: Prohibited areas bar flight for security/welfare reasons without permission; restricted areas contain unusual/hazardous activity and require checking status/authorization.

AIR-05 · UA.II.A.K2

Q: Do MOAs automatically prohibit sUAS flight?

A: Not generally, but they signal military activity and elevated collision risk. Check status, controlling agency information, authorization needs, and safety.

AIR-06 · UA.II.A.K3 · Critical

Q: Why must TFRs be checked near launch time?

A: They can arise or change after planning and impose temporary legal restrictions for VIP, emergency, wildfire, stadium, security, or other activity.

AIR-07 · UA.II.B.K2

Q: Is a UAS Facility Map grid value an authorization?

A: No. It is a planning value used in authorization processing. The pilot must receive and comply with an actual LAANC or FAA authorization.

AIR-08 · UA.II.B.K2

Q: What does LAANC further coordination do?

A: It routes a request above a facility-map value, including a zero grid, for ATC review while remaining at or below 400 ft. FAA guidance calls for at least 72 hours before the requested start.

AIR-09 · UA.II.B.K3 · Critical

Q: Does airspace authorization near an airport guarantee separation from traffic?

A: No. The remote PIC must still see, avoid, yield, monitor likely traffic, and comply with authorization conditions and all operating rules.

AIR-10 · UA.II.B.K4

Q: Name four hard-to-see low-altitude hazards.

A: Wires, unlit towers/structures, balloons/kites, and aircraft such as helicopters or agricultural aircraft; thermal plumes and laser activity are additional hazards.

AIR-11 · UA.II.B.K9

Q: What do red, green, and white aircraft position lights help infer?

A: Orientation/direction: red is left wing, green right wing, white tail. Interpretation is a collision-avoidance clue, never a substitute for yielding.

III. Weather

WX-01 · UA.III.A.K2

Q: Is a METAR an observation or forecast, and what time standard does it use?

A: An observation, normally timestamped in UTC (Z).

WX-02 · UA.III.A.K3

Q: Is a TAF an observation or forecast?

A: A terminal-area forecast over a stated validity period; apply the forecast group covering the mission time.

WX-03 · UA.III.A.K2

Q: Decode 22015G25KT 3SM.

A: Wind from 220° true at 15 knots gusting 25, visibility 3 statute miles. The gust and aircraft/site limits may make the operation unsafe even at legal visibility.

WX-04 · UA.III.A.K2

Q: Which sky-cover groups constitute a reported ceiling?

A: The lowest broken (BKN) or overcast (OVC) layer, or vertical visibility into an obscuration (VV); few/scattered layers are not ceilings.

WX-05 · UA.III.A.K2

Q: Decode BKN008 18/17 A2980.

A: Broken ceiling at 800 ft AGL, temperature 18°C, dew point 17°C, altimeter 29.80 inHg. The close spread suggests high relative humidity/fog potential.

WX-06 · UA.III.B.K1a

Q: What conditions increase density altitude?

A: Higher temperature, higher field elevation, and lower pressure. Humidity has a smaller additional effect. Higher density altitude reduces aerodynamic/thrust margin.

WX-07 · UA.III.B.K1b · Critical

Q: Why can launching downwind create a battery trap?

A: The return becomes a headwind leg with higher power and time demand when the battery is already depleted. Plan reserve for the worst leg.

WX-08 · UA.III.B.K1c

Q: Contrast stable and unstable air operationally.

A: Stable air tends toward smooth conditions, haze/fog/stratus; unstable air supports turbulence, gusts, vertical development, and showery weather.

WX-09 · UA.III.B.K1e · Critical

Q: What is the correct small-UAS strategy for thunderstorms and microbursts?

A: Avoid them with generous margins. Rapid outflow, lightning, hail, turbulence, and severe downdrafts exceed safe small-UAS capability.

WX-10 · UA.III.B.K1g

Q: Why is airframe icing hazardous?

A: It adds weight and drag, distorts lift/thrust surfaces, reduces efficiency, and can cause rapid loss of controllability; avoid known/suspected icing conditions.

IV. Loading and performance

PERF-01 · UA.IV.A.K1

Q: What must be included in takeoff weight?

A: Aircraft, installed battery, payload, guards, lights, mounts, cargo, and everything onboard or attached.

PERF-02 · UA.IV.A.K1b

Q: How can an out-of-limit center of gravity affect flight?

A: Reduced stability/control authority, unequal motor load, increased energy use, and unexpected automated behavior or inability to recover.

PERF-03 · UA.IV.A.K1a

Q: What is the typical chain from added payload to reduced mission margin?

A: More lift/thrust required → higher current/heat → reduced acceleration, climb, and endurance → less wind and emergency reserve.

PERF-04 · UA.IV.A.K2

Q: Why use manufacturer performance data instead of a previous flight alone?

A: Performance changes with configuration, temperature, altitude, wind, battery health, and loading. One anecdotal flight does not establish safe limits.

PERF-05 · UA.IV.A.K1

Q: A 52-lb aircraft receives a 4-lb payload. Can it remain under Part 107?

A: No. Takeoff weight becomes 56 lb, which is not less than 55 lb.

V. Operations

OPS-01 · UA.V.A.K2

Q: What is CTAF used for?

A: Monitoring/announcing traffic information at an airport without an operating tower. Monitoring improves awareness but silence does not prove no traffic.

OPS-02 · UA.V.A.K4

Q: What is UNICOM?

A: A nongovernment air-ground communication facility that may provide airport advisory information; it is not an ATC clearance service.

OPS-03 · UA.V.A.K5

Q: What does ATIS provide?

A: A continuous recorded broadcast of current terminal information such as weather, approaches/runways, and notices, identified by a phonetic letter.

OPS-04 · UA.V.A.K7

Q: Spell UAS using the aviation phonetic alphabet.

A: Uniform Alpha Sierra.

OPS-05 · UA.V.B.K3

Q: What does runway 27 indicate?

A: An approximate magnetic heading of 270°. Parallel runways add L, C, or R.

OPS-06 · UA.V.B.K4 · Critical

Q: Where should a remote pilot expect concentrated manned-aircraft traffic?

A: Runway approach/departure paths, traffic-pattern legs and turns, helicopter routes/pads, and low-level special operations—though traffic can occur anywhere.

OPS-07 · UA.V.B.K6

Q: What two FAA sources help identify airport frequencies and details?

A: Current aeronautical charts and the Chart Supplement.

OPS-08 · UA.V.B.K7

Q: What should occur after a wildlife strike?

A: Land safely, assess injury/damage, preserve details, and use the applicable FAA wildlife/accident reporting processes. Reinspect before return to service.

OPS-09 · UA.V.C.K1

Q: What makes an emergency plan usable?

A: Site-specific triggers, immediate actions, crew words/roles, safe landing areas, contact methods, configured aircraft behavior, and practiced decision points.

OPS-10 · UA.V.C.K2 · Critical

Q: Name warning signs that a lithium battery should be removed from service.

A: Swelling, puncture, crushed case, damaged leads, leakage/odor, abnormal heat, water/contamination exposure, or abnormal voltage/performance.

OPS-11 · UA.V.C.K3

Q: Why must return-to-home settings be site-specific?

A: An automatic climb/straight return can hit structures, enter airspace, overfly people, fight wind, or exhaust the battery. Verify altitude, route, and behavior.

OPS-12 · UA.V.C.K4

Q: What behavior may follow GNSS loss?

A: Loss of position hold, drift with wind, unreliable automated routes/RTH, and increased manual-control workload; land safely using the briefed response.

OPS-13 · UA.V.D.K1

Q: What does PAVE stand for?

A: Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, External pressures—a preflight risk scan.

OPS-14 · UA.V.D.K2

Q: What is the purpose of crew resource management?

A: Use people, information, equipment, communication, and workload effectively to identify errors/hazards and make safer decisions.

OPS-15 · UA.V.D.K3

Q: What are signs of lost situational awareness?

A: Fixation, missed callouts, uncertainty about aircraft position/energy, falling behind events, contradictory mental models, and unrecognized condition changes.

OPS-16 · UA.V.D.K4

Q: Name the five hazardous attitudes.

A: Anti-authority, impulsivity, invulnerability, macho, and resignation. Use the corresponding antidotes: follow rules; think first; it can happen to me; taking chances is foolish; I am not helpless.

OPS-17 · UA.V.D.K5

Q: Give the basic risk-management loop.

A: Identify hazard → assess likelihood/severity → choose controls → reassess residual risk → accept, modify, delay, relocate, or cancel → monitor continuously.

OPS-18 · UA.V.E.K1

Q: Name early heat-illness/dehydration effects relevant to a remote pilot.

A: Headache, thirst, fatigue, dizziness, impaired concentration/judgment, and slower response. Stop, cool, hydrate, and obtain medical help for serious symptoms.

OPS-19 · UA.V.E.K3 · Critical

Q: Is an over-the-counter medication automatically safe for flight?

A: No. Label warnings and individual side effects such as drowsiness matter; when effects or fitness are uncertain, do not operate and seek appropriate guidance.

OPS-20 · UA.V.E.K5

Q: What does IMSAFE stand for?

A: Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion/Eating.

OPS-21 · UA.V.E.K8

Q: How should a pilot preserve dark adaptation?

A: Avoid unnecessary bright/white light, dim displays, use appropriate low- intensity lighting, allow adaptation time, and scan off-center for faint objects.

OPS-22 · UA.V.E.K9

Q: What is autokinesis?

A: A stationary light can appear to move when stared at against a dark, featureless background. Use references, scanning, and instrument/crew cross-checks.

OPS-23 · UA.V.F.K1

Q: Who may maintain a typical Part 107 sUAS without a Category 4 requirement?

A: Part 107 generally does not require an FAA mechanic certificate, but the remote PIC must ensure safe condition and follow applicable manufacturer, category, declaration, and operational requirements.

OPS-24 · UA.V.F.K2 · Critical

Q: What systems belong in a complete preflight inspection?

A: Structure, fasteners/arms/gear, propulsion/props, battery/retention, payload, controller/display/antennas, command link, software/configuration, GNSS/compass, Remote ID, required lighting, and an operational control check.

OPS-25 · UA.V.F.K3

Q: What should happen after a firmware or configuration change?

A: Record it, confirm compatibility/settings, inspect/calibrate only as manufacturer directs, and conduct a controlled functional test before a demanding mission.

OPS-26 · UA.V.F.K4

Q: Why keep maintenance and battery records if Part 107 does not prescribe a universal log format?

A: They establish configuration, airworthiness decisions, recurring defects, battery degradation, category/waiver compliance, and defensible corrective action.